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(2 not-so-good possibilities)
#Is there a possibility that the rights he gave to others were exclusive?
[[User:Tomos|Tomos]] 11:29, 11 Nov 2004 (UTC)
:For your first question the words, "I gave my rights freely for all the reproductions," from the letter seem clear enough. He is putting the text into the public domain. The other rights flow from that. Public domain takes precedence over an FDL, but significant modifications can themselves give rise to new licenses which will have an effect on third generation texts. In short I would answer, "Yes."
:The second question is more difficult. The possibility is certainly there, but such an answer gives us nothing. The implications of such an act are more significant than the mere act itself. If someone clearly puts his work into the public domain, the public that uses that work should be able to rely on that. If he later attempts to give someone else exclusive rights he is giving something that he no longer has the right to give. Without this principle the entire concept of freely available material becomes meaningless by whatever name you apply to it. [[User:Eclecticology|Eclecticology]] 00:09, 12 Nov 2004 (UTC)